Loading...
Loading...
The SSC MTS Exam Analysis 2026 gives candidates a clear, data-backed view of how the most recent exam was actually conducted, which sections were straightforward, which were time-consuming, and what score range corresponds to a competitive performance. For candidates preparing for the September to November 2026 CBE (the 2026-27 cycle), the February 2026 exam (the 2025-26 cycle, conducted February 4 to 20, 2026) is the closest and most relevant preparation benchmark available.
The overall paper remained Easy to Moderate across shifts, with GK dominated by Current Affairs 2025, Reasoning being the easiest, and Mathematics rated as Moderate, with questions being easy but time-consuming. This consistency across all shifts and dates confirms what every previous SSC MTS cycle has shown: this exam rewards those who prepare GA and English deeply, and who do not panic about Mathematics.
The Staff Selection Commission has made it clear that it does not officially release any exam analysis, and sharing analysis is strictly prohibited. All analysis on this page is based on aggregated candidate feedback from thousands of candidates who appeared in the exam, compiled by education platforms across multiple shifts. No individual question-level content is reproduced in compliance with applicable examination regulations.
| Parameter Detail | |
| Exam Name | SSC Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar Exam 2025-26 |
| Exam Dates | February 4 to 20, 2026 |
| Shifts Per Day | 4 shifts daily |
| Registered Candidates | Approximately 36.17 lakh |
| Total Vacancies | 7,948 (6,810 MTS + 1,138 Havaldar) |
| Total Questions | 90 |
| Total Marks | 270 |
| Duration | 90 minutes (45 each session) |
| Session 1 Negative Marking | None |
| Session 2 Negative Marking | -1 mark per wrong answer |
| Overall Difficulty | Easy to Moderate |
| Merit Basis | Session 2 only (out of 150 marks) |
More than 36.17 Lakhs candidates successfully registered for this recruitment drive to fill 8,021 vacancies.
The overall paper was rated easy to moderate. English was the easiest section for most candidates. Mathematics was considered the most time-consuming. Reasoning questions were straightforward and scoring. General Awareness focused heavily on current affairs. Good attempts ranged between 72 and 77 questions.
Based on feedback received from students and expert review of today's question paper, the Tier 1 Exam was easy to moderate in difficulty level. Good attempts ranged from 74 to 79 for well prepared candidates.
The range of good attempts across different sources (72-77 per one analysis, 74-79 per another) reflects shift-wise variation. Some shifts were slightly harder, particularly in Mathematics and General Awareness. The consensus across all analyses is: Easy to Moderate overall, with Reasoning and English as the scoring anchors.
| Date/Phase Overall Difficulty Good Attempts | ||
| February 4, 2026 (Shift 1) | Easy to Moderate | 74 to 79 |
| February 4, 2026 (Shift 2) | Easy to Moderate | 74 to 79 |
| February 5-6, 2026 | Easy to Moderate | 73 to 78 |
| February 9-13, 2026 | Easy to Moderate | 72 to 77 |
| February 16-19, 2026 | Easy to Moderate | 73 to 78 |
SSC MTS 2026 Day 1 exam was held on February 4 across four shifts. Overall, the paper remained Easy to Moderate across shifts, with GK dominated by Current Affairs 2025, Reasoning being the easiest, and Mathematics rated as Moderate, with questions being easy but time-consuming.
| Observation Detail | |
| Difficulty | Easy to Moderate (Moderate in some shifts) |
| Good Attempts | 17 to 20 out of 20 (attempt all; no negative marking) |
| Time Required | 20 to 25 minutes |
| Primary Challenge | Calculation-intensive problems; time management |
The Mathematics section was perceived as difficult by a majority of candidates. Most questions were calculation-intensive and lengthy, making this section time-consuming. Many candidates found it to be the most challenging part of the examination.
This is the consistently observed pattern across multiple SSC MTS cycles: Mathematics is not conceptually difficult (Class 8-10 level) but takes more time than expected because of lengthy calculation steps. The key insight is that since Session 1 has no negative marking, every Mathematics question should be attempted. Even an intelligent guess yields a 33% positive expected value per unattempted question.
Topic-wise observations (February 2026):
| Topic Presence Difficulty | ||
| Arithmetic (Percentage, P/L, SI/CI, TW, TSD) | Very High (12-16 questions) | Easy to Moderate |
| Geometry and Mensuration | Moderate (2-4 questions) | Moderate |
| Number System and Simplification | Present (2-3 questions) | Easy |
| Algebra | Present (1 question) | Easy to Moderate |
| Data Interpretation (basic) | Present in some shifts (1-2 questions) | Easy |
| Observation Detail | |
| Difficulty | Very Easy |
| Good Attempts | 19 to 20 out of 20 (attempt all; no negative marking) |
| Time Required | 12 to 15 minutes |
| Primary Strength | Fastest-to-solve section; maximum marks per minute |
This was the easiest section! Questions were straightforward. Difficulty: Very Easy. Topics: Coding-Decoding, Series, and simple logic questions.
Reasoning was the easiest part of the paper in both shifts. The questions were direct and did not involve much complexity. In Shift 2, around 3-4 questions were asked from mirror images, while other questions were from common topics like series, analogy, and coding-decoding. Most students attempted nearly all questions in this section.
Topic-wise observations (February 2026):
| Topic Presence Difficulty | ||
| Analogy | High (3-5 questions) | Very Easy |
| Number and Alphabetical Series | High (3-4 questions) | Very Easy |
| Coding-Decoding | Moderate (2-3 questions) | Very Easy |
| Mirror Images | Moderate (3-4 questions per shift) | Very Easy |
| Non-verbal (Paper Folding, Embedded) | Moderate (2-3 questions) | Easy |
| Classification (Odd One Out) | Present (2-3 questions) | Very Easy |
| Mathematical Operations | Present (1-2 questions) | Easy |
Key takeaway for Session 1: Since neither Mathematics nor Reasoning has negative marking, the optimal strategy is to attempt ALL 40 questions in Session 1. Reasoning (very easy, 12-15 minutes) should be attempted first, followed by Mathematics (moderate difficulty, 25-30 minutes). Candidates who finish both sections in 40 minutes can use the remaining 5 minutes to review flagged questions.
Session 2 is where selection is decided. The merit list is based entirely on Session 2 normalised marks. Every mark in this session counts directly in the merit ranking.
| Observation Detail | |
| Difficulty | Moderate |
| Good Attempts | 14 to 16 out of 25 |
| Time Required | 20 to 22 minutes |
| Primary Focus | Current Affairs 2024-2025 dominated |
In the General Awareness section, current affairs carried higher weightage. Questions were primarily asked from important events of 2024 and 2025.
Day 1 Shift 3 GS was comprised of mostly Current Affairs questions only and was Moderate to Tough. Questions from Political Word, Index, and Sports (1 question about Youth) were asked. 2 questions were asked about Budget 2026. Current affairs were asked from 2024-2025.
Good Attempts: 14-16 questions. Warning: There is a Negative Marking (-1 Mark) in this session. Do not guess blindly here.
Topic-wise observations (February 2026 GA):
| Topic Presence Difficulty | ||
| Current Affairs (2024 and 2025 events) | Very High (8-12 questions) | Moderate |
| Sports (Olympics, Youth Games, recent) | Present (2-3 questions) | Moderate |
| Static GK (Folk Dances, Festivals, Culture) | Present (2-3 questions) | Easy to Moderate |
| Indian Polity (Article 157, etc.) | Present (1-2 questions) | Moderate |
| Budget 2026 | Present in some shifts (2 questions) | Moderate |
| Awards and Appointments | Present (1-2 questions) | Easy to Moderate |
Scoring 55+ in GA is difficult without a dedicated strategy. This proves that GA is the rank decider.
The GA section in Session 2 is the single most important differentiator in SSC MTS selection. A candidate who scores 65-70 in GA versus one who scores 45 will have a 20-25 mark advantage in the 150-mark merit component. This gap is not recoverable by English performance alone.
| Observation Detail | |
| Difficulty | Easy |
| Good Attempts | 22 to 25 out of 25 |
| Time Required | 18 to 20 minutes |
| Primary Focus | Narration, Active/Passive Voice, Vocabulary |
The English section was rated very easy by most candidates, enabling many to attempt almost all the questions. A significant number of questions were based on narration and active-passive voice. Only 2-3 questions appeared from antonyms and synonyms, which was comparatively fewer than in previous exams.
The English section was easy in both shifts. Most candidates were able to attempt almost all questions with good accuracy.
English was the scoring section. Vocabulary: Synonyms and Antonyms were from previous year papers. The cloze test was simple story-based. The Trap: Because it was easy, candidates attempted more. But silly mistakes in English are common. With high negative marking, accuracy is paramount.
Topic-wise observations (February 2026 English):
| Topic Presence Difficulty | ||
| Active and Passive Voice | High (4-6 questions) | Easy |
| Direct and Indirect Speech | High (3-5 questions) | Easy |
| Vocabulary (Synonyms, Antonyms) | Present (2-3 questions) | Easy to Moderate |
| Fill in the Blanks | Present (3-4 questions) | Easy |
| Error Spotting | Present (2-3 questions) | Easy to Moderate |
| Cloze Test | Present (4-5 questions) | Easy |
| Reading Comprehension | Present (3-4 questions) | Easy |
| Idioms and Phrases | Present (2-3 questions) | Easy to Moderate |
The higher-than-expected proportion of Active/Passive Voice and Narration questions in the 2026 exam (versus vocabulary-heavy questions) is a key observation. Candidates who had practised grammar transformations (Active to Passive, Direct to Indirect) gained a significant advantage in English.
As per the previous years' trends, the good attempts in the SSC MTS Tier I exam are 73 to 77 questions.
| Section Questions Good Attempts Marks from Good Attempts | |||
| Numerical and Mathematical Ability | 20 | 20 (all; no negative marking) | Aim for 45-54 |
| Reasoning Ability | 20 | 20 (all; no negative marking) | Aim for 54-60 |
| Session 1 Total | 40 | 40 | 99-114 |
| General Awareness | 25 | 14 to 16 | 42-48 (net after negative) |
| English Language | 25 | 22 to 25 | 63-69 (net after negative) |
| Session 2 Total | 50 | 36 to 41 | 105-117 |
| Paper Total | 90 | 76 to 81 | 204-231 |
The Session 2 good attempts (36-41 out of 50) reflect the negative marking discipline required in this session. Attempting fewer questions with high accuracy produces better Session 2 scores than attempting more questions carelessly.
The overall difficulty level of the SSC MTS Tier 1 2024 exam was easy to moderate.
| Cycle Exam Dates Overall Difficulty Good Attempts | |||
| 2025-26 (2026) | Feb 4-20, 2026 | Easy to Moderate | 72 to 79 |
| 2024-25 (2025) | Approx. 2025 | Easy to Moderate | 73 to 77 |
| 2022-23 (2023) | 2022/2023 | Easy to Moderate | 70 to 76 |
| 2021-22 (2022) | 2022 | Easy to Moderate | 68 to 75 |
The difficulty has been stable at Easy to Moderate across all recent SSC MTS cycles. This confirms that the paper is consistent and predictable, making prior-year analysis directly applicable to future cycles.
Session 1 (Math and Reasoning): Qualifying nature. No negative marking. Marks are NOT added to the final merit list. Session 2 (General Awareness and English): Decides the merit list. Negative marking of 1 mark per wrong answer.
Since Session 2 determines merit entirely, the 75-mark GA section within Session 2 is the single most important preparation focus. Candidates who scored 60+ in GA while maintaining good English scores cleared the cutoff comfortably. Those who scored 40-45 in GA struggled to clear even with high English scores.
Since there is no negative marking in Session 1, leaving any question unattempted is giving up marks unnecessarily. Even on uncertain Mathematics questions, attempting with a best guess yields a 33% positive expected value (1-in-3 chance of scoring 3 marks, with 0 downside).
The 2026 paper had more Active/Passive Voice and Narration questions than vocabulary questions. Candidates who had practised grammar transformation rules had a measurable advantage. Do not over-invest in vocabulary at the expense of grammar practice.
With questions from "major events of 2024 and 2025" and Budget 2026, the GA current affairs window stretched over 12-14 months before the exam. For the September to November 2026 exam, current affairs from September 2025 to November 2026 will be relevant.
Based on the consistent Easy to Moderate difficulty trend and the session-based merit structure:
| Section Max Marks Expected Difficulty Score Target (UR) | |||
| Mathematics (S1) | 60 | Easy to Moderate | 45 to 54 |
| Reasoning (S1) | 60 | Very Easy | 54 to 60 |
| General Awareness (S2) | 75 | Moderate | 48 to 57 |
| English (S2) | 75 | Easy | 60 to 69 |
| Session 2 Total (Merit) | 150 | -- | 108 to 126 |
A Session 2 score of 120 or above (out of 150) places UR candidates safely above the expected competitive shortlisting threshold in most states for the September to November 2026 exam.
What was the overall difficulty of SSC MTS 2026 exam? The overall difficulty level was easy to moderate, making the paper manageable for most candidates. Good attempts are estimated to be between 72 and 77 questions with strong accuracy.
Which section was hardest in SSC MTS 2026? The Mathematics section was perceived as difficult by a majority of candidates. Most questions were calculation-intensive and lengthy, making this section time-consuming.
Which section was easiest? Reasoning Ability and English sections were considered the easiest by most candidates in today's exam shifts.
What is a good score in SSC MTS CBE? Based on the 2026 analysis, a Session 2 score of 108-120 (out of 150) for UR candidates is competitive in most states. A combined total (both sessions) of 185-210 out of 270 represents a strong performance.
Are good attempts in Session 1 and Session 2 different? Yes. In Session 1 (no negative marking), attempt all 40 questions. In Session 2 (1-mark negative), good attempts are 36-41 out of 50, reflecting the need for accuracy over coverage.